If a ger who lives with you makes a pesah offering to God, all their males must be circumcised. Then they can approach and make it, and they will be like citizens of the country. But no uncircumcised man may eat of it. There shall be one Torah (law) for the citizen and for the ger who lives among you.

“There shall be one Torah...” (verse 49) Why is this written? Didn’t the Torah already say that a ger who becomes circumcised must be treated “like a citizen” (verse 48)? What do we learn from “there shall be one Torah”?

Without “there shall be one Torah,” we would only have learned that a ger who becomes circumcised is equal to a citizen for the pesah offering. But how do we know this is true for all other mitzvot in the Torah? This is why it says, “there shall be one Torah”—to teach that a ger and a citizen are equal for all the mitzvot in the Torah.